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Registered User
Joined: 8/30/2005
Posts: 3
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I was reviewing some posts I had not read and came across one I need some help determining where I am going wrong. The report was posted on 7-13-2005 by Sir Methodical were he presented a PCF to determine the relative volume times the % price change over a 10 bar period. I have no problem with the relative volume part of the formula
(AvgV10/Avg50.10)
however I'm not getting the % price change for 10 bars portion of the formula
(((C-C10)/C10)-1)*100.
If I assume that stock XYZ closed at 28 ten days (bars) ago, then a 2% increase from that close would be 28.56 for today (i.e. (28.56 - 28)/28 = .02)
This is where my confusion sets in. Where does the -1 in the formula come from? Should the formula just be (((C-C10)/C10)*100) to give a 2 % increase?
If I calculate the formula strictly as posted the result would give -98 (i.e. (((28.56 - 28)/28)-1)*100 ).
Thanks in advance for pointing out the "obvious" to everyone but me and resolving my confusion.
Harv
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Worden Trainer
Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 65,138
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I would tend to agree with your analysis. The formula mentioned appears to be a mix of two other rather popular formula formats to calculate Price Percent Change (and would not be correct as is):
100 * (C - C10) / C10
or:
100 * (C / C10 - 1)
-Bruce
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Registered User
Joined: 8/30/2005
Posts: 3
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Thanks for the reassurance, Bruce. I was afraid that "modern math" had whipped me again.
Harv
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