| formyira |
|
Gold User, Member, TeleChart
|
| Registered User |
|
|
|
|
| Unsure |
|
| Tuesday, August 30, 2005 |
| Tuesday, April 3, 2012 9:15:55 PM |
3
[0.00% of all post / 0.00 posts per day] |
|
Thanks for the reassurance, Bruce. I was afraid that "modern math" had whipped me again.
Harv
|
I was reviewing some posts I had not read and came across one I need some help determining where I am going wrong. The report was posted on 7-13-2005 by Sir Methodical were he presented a PCF to determine the relative volume times the % price change over a 10 bar period. I have no problem with the relative volume part of the formula
(AvgV10/Avg50.10)
however I'm not getting the % price change for 10 bars portion of the formula
(((C-C10)/C10)-1)*100.
If I assume that stock XYZ closed at 28 ten days (bars) ago, then a 2% increase from that close would be 28.56 for today (i.e. (28.56 - 28)/28 = .02)
This is where my confusion sets in. Where does the -1 in the formula come from? Should the formula just be (((C-C10)/C10)*100) to give a 2 % increase?
If I calculate the formula strictly as posted the result would give -98 (i.e. (((28.56 - 28)/28)-1)*100 ).
Thanks in advance for pointing out the "obvious" to everyone but me and resolving my confusion.
Harv
|
|
Has anyone had experience with optionsXpress? I looked them up at their web site (same as name with www & .com). The one triggers another (OTO) order entry sounds great if you can't watch the market during the day. It appears that a stock/option could be purchased and that trade would trigger another trade to sell or put a stop-loss. Anyone with experience with this, or do I have it all wrong?
|
|