Registered User
Joined: 6/18/2012
Posts: 24
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Hi bud, is this the correct PCF for a bollinger band NOT pierced on the previous candle?
H1 <= AVGC10 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C ^ 2 + C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10 ^ 2) / 9)
I think the above may need a C10 added
The idea is to combine the above with the bollinger pierced on the most recent candle, which I presume would simply add:
and (H > AVGC10 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C ^ 2 + C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10 ^ 2) / 9)).
Is this correct? Thanks for your help.
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Registered User
Joined: 6/18/2012
Posts: 24
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The above is refering to the top of the BB going long in a trade.
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Worden Trainer
Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 65,138
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If you want the high of the previous candle to be at or below the Upper Bollinger Band 10, 0.8:
H1 <= AVGC10.1 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 + C10 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10.1 ^ 2) / 10)
Checking for this as well as the high being above during the current bar would be:
H > AVGC10 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C ^ 2 + C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10 ^ 2) / 10) AND H1 <= AVGC10.1 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 + C10 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10.1 ^ 2) / 10)
Modelling Bollinger Bands (& Standard Deviation) in a TC PCF
-Bruce
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Registered User
Joined: 6/18/2012
Posts: 24
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Many thanks Bruce
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Worden Trainer
Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 65,138
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You're welcome.
-Bruce
Personal Criteria Formulas
TC2000 Support Articles
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