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kippers
Posted : Tuesday, July 2, 2013 2:19:56 PM
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Joined: 6/18/2012
Posts: 24

Hi bud, is this the correct PCF for a bollinger band NOT pierced on the previous candle?

H1 <= AVGC10 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C ^ 2 + C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10 ^ 2) / 9)

 

I think the above may need a C10 added

 

The idea is to combine the above with the bollinger pierced on the most recent candle, which I presume would simply add:

and (H > AVGC10 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C ^ 2 + C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10 ^ 2) / 9)).

 

Is this correct? Thanks for your help.

kippers
Posted : Tuesday, July 2, 2013 2:29:06 PM
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Joined: 6/18/2012
Posts: 24

The above is refering to the top of the BB going long in a trade.

 

Bruce_L
Posted : Tuesday, July 2, 2013 2:33:29 PM


Worden Trainer

Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 65,138

If you want the high of the previous candle to be at or below the Upper Bollinger Band 10, 0.8:

H1 <= AVGC10.1 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 + C10 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10.1 ^ 2) / 10)

Checking for this as well as the high being above during the current bar would be:

H > AVGC10 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C ^ 2 + C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10 ^ 2) / 10) AND H1 <= AVGC10.1 + .8 * SQR(ABS(C1 ^ 2 + C2 ^ 2 + C3 ^ 2 + C4 ^ 2 + C5 ^ 2 + C6 ^ 2 + C7 ^ 2 + C8 ^ 2 + C9 ^ 2 + C10 ^ 2 - 10 * AVGC10.1 ^ 2) / 10)

Modelling Bollinger Bands (& Standard Deviation) in a TC PCF



-Bruce
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kippers
Posted : Tuesday, July 2, 2013 2:35:04 PM
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Joined: 6/18/2012
Posts: 24

Many thanks Bruce

 

Bruce_L
Posted : Tuesday, July 2, 2013 2:37:49 PM


Worden Trainer

Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 65,138

You're welcome.



-Bruce
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