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New Bullish and Bearish Pins Incorporating Candlestick Bodies Rate this Topic:
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traderlady
Posted : Friday, January 11, 2019 1:28:24 PM
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Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 1,148
From what I've studied, traditionally Pins (whether Bullish or Bearish) focus exclusively on the shadows or wicks of the Candlestick (thus ignoring the Body).  I'd like to test a new way of calculating Pins which include four alternatives instead of two.  I am offering new names for each of the four formulas.

 

1)   AMRN on 12/24/18 chosen for it's Filled Down Body:

1a) Notice the filled body.  As percent, calculate High minus Close.  Let's name this Pin Filled H-C.

1b) Calculate Close minus Low.  Let's name this Pin Bull Wick C-L.

 

2)  WTW on 12/11/18 chosen as a second example using the same formulas as AMRN.

2a)  As percent, calculate High minus Close.  Let's name this Pin Filled H-C.

2b) Calculate Close minus Low.  Let's name this Pin Bull Wick C-L.

 

3)   BBBY on 01/10/19 chosen for it's Empty Up Body:

3a) As percent calculate Close minus Low.  Let's name this Pin Empty C-L.

3b) As percent, calculate High minus Close. Let's name this Pin Bear Wick H-C.

 

4)  TILRAY on 01/8/19 chosen for it's Empty Up Body that looks as if there are no wicks or shadows (but there are small ones).  It also uses the same formulas as BBBY.

4a) As percent calculate High minus Open.  Let's name this Pin Empty C-L.

4b) As percent, calculate High minus Close. Let's name this Pin Bear Wick H-C.

 

Bruce, I appreciate your math expertise every time I come up with a new idea to test!

traderlady

 

 

 

Bruce_L
Posted : Friday, January 11, 2019 2:14:49 PM


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Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 64,508

I am not quite sure I understand, but the upper wick as a percentage of the body can be written as follows.

100 * (H - GREATEST(O, C)) / IIF(H > L, H - L, 1)

And the lower wick as a percentage of the body can be written as follows.

100 * (LEAST(O, C) - L) / IIF(H > L, H - L, 1)

And the entire length of both wicks as a percentage of the body can be written as follows.

100 * (H - L - ABS(O - C)) / IIF(H > L, H - L, 1)



-Bruce
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traderlady
Posted : Friday, January 11, 2019 2:27:51 PM
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Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 1,148

I am not interested in any of the three traditional formulas that you have provided as I have been using those for many years.  Perhaps I confused you by using the term, Pin. 

As I tried to explain above I have tried to redefine these traditional ideas by giving examples and dates for you to see what I am talking about.

Allow me to I emphasize the two new one bolded below:

1)  As percent, calculate High minus Close.  Let's name this Pin Filled H-C.

2)  As percent calculate Close minus Low.  Let's name this Pin Empty C-L.

Bruce_L
Posted : Friday, January 11, 2019 2:44:14 PM


Worden Trainer

Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 64,508

The high minus the close as a percentage of the body is an even shorter formula than those given in my previous response.

100 * (H - C) / IIF(H > L, H - L, 1)

And the close minus the low is the same length.

100 * (C - L) / IIF(H > L, H - L, 1)



-Bruce
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traderlady
Posted : Friday, January 11, 2019 2:48:21 PM
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Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 1,148

Thanks, and have a great weekend!

Bruce_L
Posted : Friday, January 11, 2019 2:51:08 PM


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Joined: 10/7/2004
Posts: 64,508

You're welcome.



-Bruce
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